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Just Pickups Forum for discussing guitar pickups.

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Old April 29th, 2008, 12:39 PM   #1 (permalink)
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Does tapping a single coil effect the non-tapped sound?

So does getting a single coil pickup tapped effect how it sounds in the non-tapped position? In other words, if I had two duncan tele bridge pups, both the same model, at a resistence of, let's say, 12K, and one wasn't tapped but the other was, let's say at 7K, and they were installed in the same type of tele with the same amp, would they both sound the same when the tapped pup is in the full output, non-tapped position? Of course, Duncan would say yes, but is that really accurate? I've been curious about this for a while.
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Old April 29th, 2008, 12:44 PM   #2 (permalink)
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i've never experienced a pickup's sound being altered by a tap in the other one unless, of course, you're running both together (position 2).
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Old April 29th, 2008, 03:04 PM   #3 (permalink)
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Actually I meant the same pickup. In other words, if I have two tele's, each with the same exact duncan bridge pup, but one's tapped and one's not, and I play the non-tapped one in the bridge only position, and then play the tapped one in the bridge only position WITHOUT engaging the tap, will they sound the same?
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Old April 29th, 2008, 04:47 PM   #4 (permalink)
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I had one of the Squier 51s where it could not tap, and I could not tell the difference between it and the other ones that could, but they all had slightly different sounds anyway.
Anybody's guess, honestly.
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Old April 29th, 2008, 06:43 PM   #5 (permalink)
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yeah, certainly not an issue i'd worry much about. like bubba sez, you could buy two identical pickups and detect slight differences. buying gear is always a crapshoot, but sometimes you roll a seven! if you don't, sell it and roll the dice again.
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